CCNA S2- Version 4.1 Chaper 7 100%

CCNA S2- Version 4.1 Chaper 7 100%

1. A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network. How does the server determine what service is being requested by the client?
applies the default service configured in directory services
uses ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router
sends a request to the client asking for the appropriate service
*identifies the appropriate service from the destination port field

2. What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake?
It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination hosts.
It immediately triggers the retransmission of lost data.
*It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon initial sequence numbers.
It identifies the destination application on the receiving host.

3. What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.)
connection oriented
full-duplex operation
*low overhead
*no flow control
*no error-recovery function
reliable transmission

4. Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair?
source port with destination port
source IP address with destination port
source IP address and destination IP address
*source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port

5. What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource records with a DNS server whenever changes occur?
*dynamic
zone transfer
local recursive query
root domain query
top-level domain query

6. Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name?
dynamic lookup
forward lookup
resolution lookup
*reverse lookup

7. Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.)
maintaining a large number of cached DNS entries
maintaining the ISP server
*mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts
*forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server
forwarding all name resolution requests to root servers on the Internet

8. Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a server to another server?
SNMP
FTP
*SMTP
HTTPS

9. A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from their ISP. The services required include hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail. Which protocols represent these three key applications? (Choose three.)
*FTP
*HTTP
DNS
SNMP
DHCP
*SMTP

10. To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is based on what two factors? (Choose two.)
accessibility
adaptability
*availability
*reliability
scalability

11. Which two statements are true about the OSI and TCP/IP models? (Choose two.)
The two bottom layers of the TCP/IP model make up the bottom layer of the OSI model.
The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model and the OSI model is based on actual protocols.
*The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.
The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection.
*The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers.

12. What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP?
*caching-only
root
second-level
top-level

13. Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number? (Choose two.)
DNS - 25
FTP - 110
*HTTP - 80
POP3 - 25
*SMTP - 25

14. What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.)
It uses a different client request-server response process than HTTP uses.
It specifies additional rules for passing data between the application and data link layers.
*It supports authentication.
It allows more simultaneous connections than HTTP allows.
*It encrypts packets with SSL.
*It requires additional server processing time.

15. User1 is sending an e-mail to User2@cisco.com. What are two characteristics of the process of sending this data? (Choose two.)
It utilizes TCP port 110.
A TCP connection is established directly between the User1 and User2 client computers in order to send the e-mail message.
*It utilizes a store and forward process.
The same application layer protocol is used to send the e-mail and retrieve it from the destination server.
*SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers.

16. Which three fields do a TCP header and a UDP header have in common? (Choose three.)
*source port
window
*checksum
*destination port
acknowledgment number
sequence number

17. When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at the same time, which two values will likely be the same in all packets for each session? (Choose two.)
*IP address
*MAC address
session number
sequence number

18. What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.)
*Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability.
Reliability is measured based on the number of applications in use on the network.
The longer the MTTR, the greater the reliability.
*Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability.
*The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability.
An ISP guarantees the same level of reliability to all of its customers.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next?
Host1 sends an ACK message to Host2.
Host1 sends a SYN message to Host2.
Host1 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host2.
Host2 sends an ACK message to Host1.
Host2 sends a SYN message to Host1.
*Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1.

20. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a valid representation of source and destination sockets for this request?
Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
Source - 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1045
*Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:80
Source - 192.168.1.17:1045 ; Destination - 192.168.2.39:1061

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.)
If the gateway address changes, the file will be updated dynamically.
*The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10.
*If the ping www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the Cisco web server IP address before DNS is queried.
The command ping mypc will use IP address 172.16.5.1.
Name to IP address mappings are added to the file after they are received from DNS.

GOOD LUCK GUYS

CCNA S2- Version 4.1 Chaper 6 100%

 CCNA S2- Version 4.1 Chaper 6 100%

1. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
*It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.

2. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
*Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.

3. In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number (ASN)?
when the company's ISP adds connection points to the Internet
when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork
when more than one interior routing protocol is used
*when the company uses two or more ISPs

4. What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies and is controlled by a single administrative authority?
Internet
intranet
virtual private network
*autonomous system

5. Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol?
*BGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP

6. What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data?
*border gateway router
DSLAM
web server
interior router

7. Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions?
source IP address
source MAC address
*destination IP address
destination MAC address

8. What statement is true regarding an AS number?
*AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use.
Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers.
ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers.
All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number.

9. Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs?
*BGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIP v2

10. Consider this routing table entry:

R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1

What type of route is this?
a static route
a default route
*a RIP route
an OSPF route
an EIGRP route
a directly-connected route

11. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes down, when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available?
in 30 seconds
in 60 seconds
in 90 seconds
*immediately

12. What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1 updates?
metric
*subnet mask
area identification
hop count
autonomous system number

13. What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
a home business with one ISP connection
*a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs
*a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs
a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP
a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP

14. Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.)
They are created in interface configuration mode.
*They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.
They automatically become the default gateway of the router.
*They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S
They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shutdown.

15. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?
Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs.
Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations.
Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.
*Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the output that is shown?
routerA(config-router)# no version 2
routerA(config)# interface fa0/0
routerA(config-if)# ip address 172.19.0.0 255.255.0.0
*routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0
routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway

17. Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers are running RIP. There are two paths from router A to the 192.168.3.0 network. Based on the output of the show ip route command on router A, which route was entered into the routing table and why?
A,B,C,D because it has the lowest administrative distance
A,E,F,G,D because it has the lowest administrative distance
*A,B,C,D because it has the lowest metric
A,E,F,G,D because it has the lowest metric

18. What is the purpose of the network command in configuring RIP?
to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol
to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers
*to identify the directly connected networks that will be announced in RIP updates
to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP
to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router

19. Refer to the exhibit. If connectivity between the two hosts is maintained, what is the maximum number of RIP routers that can be in the path from HostA to HostB?
14
*15
16
17

20. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
drop the packet
forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.0
forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.64
*use the default route
GOOD LUCK GUYS

CCNA S2- Version 4.1 Chaper 5 Insyaallah 100%

 CCNA S2- Version 4.1 Chaper 5 Insyaallah 100%

1. What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to "LAB_A"?
*Router> enable
Router# configure terminal

Router(config)# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable

Router# hostname LAB_A
Router> enable

Router# configure router
Router(config)# hostname LAB_A

Router> enable
Router(config)# host name LAB_A

2. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
*VTY interface
*console interface
Ethernet interface
secret EXEC mode
*privileged EXEC mode
router configuration mode

3. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
console
AUX
*Telnet
modem

4. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
View a list of commands entered in a previous session.
Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
*Set the command history buffer size.
*Recall previously entered commands.
Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

5. A router has a valid operating system and a configuration stored in NVRAM. When the router boots up, which mode will display?
global configuration mode
setup mode
ROM monitor mode
*user EXEC mode

6. Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?
transmission of data
reception of data
*clocking for the synchronous link
noise cancellation in transmitted data

7. In what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
*SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management.
SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser.
SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco devices.
*SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.
SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device configuration.

8. What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen? (Choose three.)
*host name
DHCP options
*domain name
interface IP addresses
*enable secret password
DNS server IP addresses

9. Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.)
ATM
CHAP
*Frame Relay
*HDLC
PAP
*PPP

10. What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet?
host name
domain name
DHCP address pool
*DNS server IP address

11. To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key combination?
*Tab
Ctrl-P
Ctrl-N
Up Arrow
Right Arrow
Down Arrow

12. How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure?
blinks rapidly amber
blinks rapidly green
*steady amber
steady green

13. Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?
Open an SDM session with the switch from her desktop.
Telnet to the switch from the router console.
*Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.
The administrator must go to the switch location and make a console connection to check these settings.

14. Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
*platform
routing protocol
*connected interface of neighbor device
*device ID
IP addresses of all interfaces
enable mode password
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will correctly configure the serial interface on Router2?
Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.11 255.255.255.252
Router2(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router2(config-if)# no shutdown
Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.11 255.255.255.252
Router2(config-if)# no shutdown
Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.9 255.255.255.252
Router2(config-if)# clock rate 64000
Router2(config-if)# no shutdown
*Router2(config)# interface S0/0/0
Router2(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.9 255.255.255.252
Router2(config-if)# no shutdown

16. When utilizing SDM Express, which two configuration options allow a router serial interface to obtain an IP address without manually configuring it? (Choose two.)
Static IP Address
Frame Relay encapsulation
*IP Negotiated
HDLC encapsulation
*IP Unnumbered

17. Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch X with a default gateway via the switch console port. The switch VLAN 1 interface is assigned IP address 192.168.5.68/26. What command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.1
*X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.126
X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.190
X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.192
X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.192 192.168.5.1

18. Refer to the exhibit. Users on both SW1 and SW2 report that they are unable to communicate with each other. A network administrator issues show ip interface brief commands on both routers to troubleshoot the connectivity between the two networks. What action will correct the connectivity issue?
Configure a default route on router RA pointing to router RB.
Modify the network address of the serial link from a /30 to a /24.
Issue a clock rate command on the s0/0/0 interface on router RA.
*Issue a no shutdown command on the s0/0/0 interface on router RB.
Issue a debug ip rip on both routers to verify that the routing protocol is functioning properly.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the show port-security interface fastethernet0/1 command on the switch, which statement about the switch port is true?
The port has been shut down.
Only three unique MAC addresses are permitted to use this port.
*There are ten devices with different MAC addresses connected to this port.
Port security has been violated seven times on this port.

20. What step must be completed before port security can be enabled on an interface?
The interface must be shut down.
*The interface must be in access mode.
The maximum number of MAC addresses must be configured.
The violation mode must be configured.

21. Which three sets of commands are required to enable administrators to connect to a switch on the same LAN via Telnet for configuration and management? (Choose three.)
Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1
Switch1(config)# exit
*Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.126 255.255.255.192
Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch1(config)# line con 0
Switch1(config-line)# enable password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
*Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login
*Switch1(config)# enable secret class

22. Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)
All router commands are available.
Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.
*This is the default mode on an unconfigured router when first powered up.
Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.
*Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.

23. Which of the following identifies the correct items needed to initially configure a router?
1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a straight through cable
3) the router's console port
1) PC's Ethernet port
2) a crossover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port
1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port
1) PC's Ethernet port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's console port
*1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's console port
1) PC's Ethernet port
2) a rollover cable
3) the router's Ethernet port

24. An administrator enters the show ip route command into a router. What type of information will be displayed?
the current configuration stored in RAM
*the networks learned from other neighbors
the encapsulation and bandwidth of every interface
the private IP addresses translated to public IP addresses
Switch1(config)# exit

25.A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is the cause of this problem?
The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch.
*There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.
The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation NIC.
The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of the switch.

GOOD LUCK GUYS

CCNA S2- Version 4.1 Chaper 4 Insyaallah 100%

  CCNA S2- Version 4.1 Chaper 4 Insyaallah 100%

1. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?
128
254
255
*256
512
1024

2. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
11110010
11011011
11110110
*11100111
11100101
11101110

3. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
*254
255
256
510
511
512

4. What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
192.168.0.0
192.168.0.255
192.168.32.0
192.168.32.254
*192.168.32.255

5. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
6
14
*30
62

6. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
*Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Class E

7. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
*Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The default gateway is a network address.
The default gateway is a broadcast address.
*The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

9. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)
*to preserve registered public IP addresses
to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks
*to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet
to make routing protocols operate more efficiently
to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet
to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers

10. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?
64
96
*128
192
256
512

11. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit.
*The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.
Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.
*All subnets in a network are the same size.
Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.

12. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?
Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP address.
A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP address.
*Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.
Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use for communications.

13. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?
The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address.
The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address.
The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address.
*The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.

14. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
127 to 191
127 to 192
*128 to 191
128 to 192

15. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?
2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13
2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13
2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13
*2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95
*192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96
192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127
192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128

17. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type?
*inside global
outside local
outside global
private IP address

18. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?
255 and below
1023 and below
*1024 and above
64,000 and above

19. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. HostA has sent a request to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?
10.1.1.2
172.30.20.1
*172.30.20.10
192.168.1.1

GOOD LUCK GUYS